He makes his main point in a bit of a contradiction: "there is an essential difference between ancient and modern tragedy" BUT "the concept of the tragic remains essentially unchanged." His first point is that the aesthetics of Aristotle still apply. And I have to agree with the genius of Aristotle. The difference with the modern concept of tragedy is that now the "hero stands and falls entirely on his own deeds." In the past it was more the sins of the father in the case of Antigone, or perhaps some excessive hubris as in the case of Oedipus.
Kierkegaard calls "the appearance of Christ . . . the deepest tragedy" because "He bore the sins of all the world." He never goes back to that comment, but he seems to be implying some connection to his discussion. I wish he did get back to it because again as an atheist, the whole Christ dying thing makes no sense to me.
Either/Or - Part One
Ancient Tragedy’s Reflection in the Modern